This observation by Marie Antoinette surprises and confuses me:

"Marie Antoinette's situation became more precarious when, on August 6, 1775, her sister-in-law, Marie Thérèse, the wife of the Comte d'Artois, gave birth to a son, Louis Antoine, immediately titled the Duc d'Angoulême. He would be the heir to the French throne for seven years" (Source: Biographicon Marie Antoinette The Early Years)

Am I to assume that, should Louis and Antoinette remain childless for seven years after the birth of the Duc d"Angouleme, the Duc d'Angouleme would become Dauphin? What would a child of Louis and Antoinette born one year after the Duc d"Angouleme be called? Would Artois then become heir to the throne under his son? This is driving me nuts!

I hope somebody has an answer.

It could be referring to the fact that when the Comte de Provence died in 1824, the Comte d'Artois became king, therefore making the Duc d'Angoulême the new Dauphin from 1824 until abdication in 1830. On the other hand, maybe it's referring to the fact that Marie-Antoinette and Louis XVI had no Dauphin until the birth of Louis-Joseph in 1781. I could be wrong though, these were just the thoughts that crossed my mind.

This can only refer to the period when Artois was King Charles X (September 1824 - August 1830) except that this is 6 years and not 7. The French Salic law would have placed the Duc d'Angoulême third in the order of succession prior to the birth of a son to Louis XVI.

Merci beaucoup mesdemoiselles. Je le comprends. C'etait confusant quand je le lisait le premier fois.

Thank you for clearing it up!